And if a pharmaceutical or drug has addictive properties with no medical uses, the government outlaws it by scheduling it as having abuse potential. Seems like a big double standard.
I’ve got some bad news… all of society is based on double standards. Humans are far less logical and much more emotional, gullible, biased and egotistical than we would like to think.
While it’s just a guess, pharmaceutical lobbying is likely why. None of that happened before the FDA was created sometime in the early 1900s.
Right now we’re in the political stages of considering the regulating of internet access to minors, the addictiveness of social media is not regulated.
It’s an interesting thought, and maybe I’m misunderstanding you, but why would the pharmaceutical industry lobby to have certain drugs outlawed? For example, Purdue pharma went to great lengths to hide the truth about the addictiveness of their drug.
My limited understanding of the history was that during the patent medicine era, medicines had proprietary formulas and varying compositions. For example, many formulas had cannabis extract, others contained opium. The initial regulations therefore were done for medical purposes of drug purity. Edited to add, it wouldn’t surprise me if the overuse of opium in the patent medicine era led directly to judging the medical usefulness of these drugs, although it’s just a guess.
And if a pharmaceutical or drug has addictive properties with no medical uses, the government outlaws it by scheduling it as having abuse potential. Seems like a big double standard.
I’ve got some bad news… all of society is based on double standards. Humans are far less logical and much more emotional, gullible, biased and egotistical than we would like to think.
While it’s just a guess, pharmaceutical lobbying is likely why. None of that happened before the FDA was created sometime in the early 1900s.
Right now we’re in the political stages of considering the regulating of internet access to minors, the addictiveness of social media is not regulated.
It’s an interesting thought, and maybe I’m misunderstanding you, but why would the pharmaceutical industry lobby to have certain drugs outlawed? For example, Purdue pharma went to great lengths to hide the truth about the addictiveness of their drug.
My limited understanding of the history was that during the patent medicine era, medicines had proprietary formulas and varying compositions. For example, many formulas had cannabis extract, others contained opium. The initial regulations therefore were done for medical purposes of drug purity. Edited to add, it wouldn’t surprise me if the overuse of opium in the patent medicine era led directly to judging the medical usefulness of these drugs, although it’s just a guess.