The term bourgeois originated in medieval France, where it denoted an inhabitant of a walled town. Its overtones became important in the 18th century, when the middle class of professionals, manufacturers, and their literary and political allies began to demand an influence in politics consistent with their economic status. Marx was one of many thinkers who treated the French Revolution as a revolution of the bourgeois.
Source: Britannica
I was in an art gallery and so confused about the use of the term with respect to art contemporary to the French Revolution. So I looked it up lol
I would be interested in hearing more about this thought if you would like to share. (Or clarification if this is in agreement with the quoted text, contrary to it, or independent?)
It was a short video from a historian on social media which I saw it from so I’m afraid I can’t find it anymore. But now that I think about it, it is possible that they themselves are inspired from Marx’s views.
Thanks for responding and for taking a look for it.
For what it’s worth my understanding is that in Marx’s time the term middle class applied to the people he called bourgeoisie because they were in the middle between aristocrats and peasants. Aristocrats made money from their land (taxes, rent, tributes, etc), peasants were either serfs/sustenance farmers and the middle class made their money from capital.
As the industrial revolution progressed more of the bourgeoisie made money directly from the labour of others and the peasant class was replaced by the proletariat as they shifted to wage labour from serfdom.
So I don’t think saying the French Revolution was a revolution of the bourgeoisie is different than saying it was a revolution of the middle class, at least using the word as it was used at the time.