So Latin spread pretty well across Europe, being the basis of almost every language there, but how come it didn’t take as strong a hold in the Middle East? It’s not as if the Romans were never there, and they lingered there far longer than they did in Europe. Was it just a matter of a stronger preexisting culture, or did the Arabs have something to do with it? What happened here?

  • Zwuzelmaus@feddit.org
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    5
    arrow-down
    1
    ·
    1 day ago

    You knew exactly what I meant

    Well, no. You are writing a less than precise style, and you are up the walls and … whatever