Its an objective fact among every country that publishes crime statistics. These countries all vary widely in every other metric you can imagine (social, economic, political etcetera). But, crime being disproportionately commited by men is a universal constant. Nobody has an objectively correct answer to this question, it’s just a prompt for discussion. Share your opinion, whatever it may be. However, please don’t be a dick to other commenters. Disagreement, good faith, many view points and discussion is the goal here.
Have some statistics before you start arguing with https://endhomelessness.org/resources/research-and-analysis/demographic-data-project-gender-and-individual-homelessness/
Homelessness is a symptom of poverty, but many people still suffer from poverty without being homeless.
I haven’t checked super thoroughly, but the statistics you linked do not make this distinction, as far as I can tell. Maybe there is other reasons for the skew in homelessness than people being in poverty. Maybe your point still stands even after checking if there’s actual correlation or not.
(Edit: I just noticed the
part of your original post, didn’t consider that yet…)
Could you please spare me the maybe part and state some facts? Just maybe… As per quote of Mr Woland from Bulgakov “that is the fact. And fact is the most stubborn things under the sun”. Women get more lenient punishments for crimes, more likely are to be release on bail, more likely to be release earlier or due to the living dependents, more likely to be covered by some government social program
You yourself are stating facts without any backup, I just wanted to make it clear that I don’t necessarily refute your point, but that I’ve got an issue with the statistics you base your point on.
Just because you state a fact, doesn’t make said fact a true thing.