• _deleted_@aussie.zone
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    13 hours ago

    Wasn’t it the British that gave Palestine away in the Balfour agreement to form modern Israel in the first place?

    • atomicbocks@sh.itjust.works
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      8 hours ago

      As a Native American I have always been somewhat amused by claims of ancestral heritage to the land and such. But my limited understanding of this is that the British spent some decades prior to WWII allowing the sale of large parcels of Palestine’s land to private parties and this land was then consolidated into the first state of Israel. Thus they were able to claim that they didn’t steal the land, but the duplicity is obvious. For starters I am still confused as to what gave Britain the right to sale the land in the first place.

      • Rat_in_a_hat@lemmy.ca
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        7 hours ago

        Sale of land is more of a founding myth to legitimize it as something transactional or legal. It was under British mandate so effectively a colonial administration and therefore rubber-stamped by Britain.

        Evidence also exists that Britain forged land deeds and sold off the land that wasn’t held by anyone locally or communally held. Also it wasn’t to private individuals but to the Jewish National Fund (publicly backed by the Rothschild family) which is similar to the East India Company.

        Early Zionist institutions consciously modeled themselves on chartered colonial companies like the British South Africa Company or Hudson Bay company.

        Most of the land was “acquired” when the Palestinians were expelled during the Nakba and the newly Israel made a convenient “absentee” law for land ownership.