I see this come up a lot in discussions about voting in America. Postal votes disproportionately go to Democrats, hence the Democrats want to expand postal voting while Republicans want to restrict it (and insist there is totally a bunch of fraud going on).
I’ve googled with a few search engines and haven’t found a convincing reason. Lots of evidence that the skew is real, but no explanation as to why. Indeed, if one just looks at demographics, one would expect postal voting to benefit Republicans by facilitating votes from people in the countryside who live far away from voting centers.
So what actually gives?
Except when you add in the element of access to voting. Voting in-person on a work day isn’t necessarily feasible for the average American. By enforcing in-person voting you disenfranchise the groups that are more heavily democratic (younger, working, lower/middle class).
Really? In Canada it’s law to allow employees time during the work day to go vote. That’s not the case in the US?
It is. But it’s not enforced. Employees in the US are afraid to ask their employers for anything because they can get fired for no reason.
Woof, that’s crazy. I feel for a lot of Americans.
It’s state by state whether it’s required and/or paid time off. Additionally, just because something is in the law doesn’t mean every employer is good about it.
That’s nuts. I hope Americans can pull up from this nosedive, even if the time to get back flying is over and all they can get is a controlled crash.
Just for context this isn’t anything new, this is a long running issue in the US that Trump has just exacerbated.
To add to that, it’s likely every country has some elements that enfranchise or disenfranchise certain voters. Not to mention rampant propaganda.
While it might be a quote from Regan, it’s a good quote:
That makes sense. I’m not an American but lived in the country for a number of years, so I understand some but not much of the culture.