So Latin spread pretty well across Europe, being the basis of almost every language there, but how come it didn’t take as strong a hold in the Middle East? It’s not as if the Romans were never there, and they lingered there far longer than they did in Europe. Was it just a matter of a stronger preexisting culture, or did the Arabs have something to do with it? What happened here?
Look, what the fuck are we trying to do here man? Snipe at eachother in exchange for internet points? You knew exactly what I meant, so why are you here?
Well, no. You are writing a less than precise style, and you are up the walls and … whatever