“It’s clear to me now that other people have an ability to hold onto a thought longer than me.”
The personal pronoun, “me” is used when it is the object. However, that’s not the case here. I’m not being held. Thoughts are the object. I’m comparing how well they hold onto thoughts with how well I hold onto thoughts.
The sentence, “It’s clear to me now that other people have an ability to hold onto a thought longer than I”, has an implied verb. This is common in informal conversation.
The meaning I would expect an English speaker to understand would be, “It’s clear to me now that other people have an ability to hold onto a thought longer than I can.”
No. It’s clear to me now that other people have an ability to hold onto a thought longer than I.
If you were speaking about someone else, would you use “he/she” or “him/her” in this context?
Because if it’s the former, then you use “I” to replace it, and if it’s the latter, you use “me”.
Doesn’t sound right.
Sounds better.
https://dictionary.cambridge.org/grammar/british-grammar/pronouns-personal-i-me-you-him-it-they-etc
You are saying I should have said:
“It’s clear to me now that other people have an ability to hold onto a thought longer than me.”
The personal pronoun, “me” is used when it is the object. However, that’s not the case here. I’m not being held. Thoughts are the object. I’m comparing how well they hold onto thoughts with how well I hold onto thoughts.
The sentence, “It’s clear to me now that other people have an ability to hold onto a thought longer than I”, has an implied verb. This is common in informal conversation.
The meaning I would expect an English speaker to understand would be, “It’s clear to me now that other people have an ability to hold onto a thought longer than I can.”