So Latin spread pretty well across Europe, being the basis of almost every language there, but how come it didn’t take as strong a hold in the Middle East? It’s not as if the Romans were never there, and they lingered there far longer than they did in Europe. Was it just a matter of a stronger preexisting culture, or did the Arabs have something to do with it? What happened here?
Cmon man that is such a needless nitpick, especially as I had the qualifier “almost” in there. Also; booo AI, booo!
ok, so “almost” all americans have an IQ below their president? 😅
Look, what the fuck are we trying to do here man? Snipe at eachother in exchange for internet points? You knew exactly what I meant, so why are you here?
Well, no. You are writing a less than precise style, and you are up the walls and … whatever