• jenesaisquoi@feddit.org
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      13 hours ago

      This comment is incorrect. Not Germany nor any other country has veto rights on this agreement. They rejected it, using their normal vote.

    • Pip@feddit.org
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      2 days ago

      Does your point not support abandoning anonymity? Perhaps Germany does not want to impose its Israel-related policy on other states by veto, while maintaining its own point of view?

      • doben@lemmy.ml
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        5 hours ago

        You mean a nation state, complicit in genocide once again, violently suppressing pro-Palestinian voices is voluntarily surrendering their veto power, as to not impose their Staatsräson on other nation states within its sphere of influence? I don‘t think so!

        Germany has leverage through it‘s size and influence in the EU, especially in scenarios with QMV (Qualified Majority Voting). So even without unanimity rule, it still has a lot of power to create consent.

        Without the unanimity rule, they‘d become virtually impossible to outvote, as they only need a few allied countries, while still being able to build a blocking minority (this is what happened in the article posted by Sem, not a veto, but a block by minority vote). It would also have the power to discipline smaller countries, forcing them to tow the line, aka marginalizing them.

        So contrary to your take, Germany is trying to maximize its power in the EU, which is in line with the aspirations of Merz wanting Germany to become a regional power again. The Hungary example has its basis, but I find it to be rather convenient for Germany‘s strategy.

        Practically in terms of current conflicts this means for Germany: Become untouchable and a Blocker in regards to measures against Israel, while also easily force action on Ukraine.