So Latin spread pretty well across Europe, being the basis of almost every language there, but how come it didn’t take as strong a hold in the Middle East? It’s not as if the Romans were never there, and they lingered there far longer than they did in Europe. Was it just a matter of a stronger preexisting culture, or did the Arabs have something to do with it? What happened here?
That is simply not true.
Only for these 6 you can call it the basis: Italian, French, Spanish, Portugese, Romanian, Moldovan. It has also influenced English a lot.
That makes 280 mill people in Europe having one of these as their native language.
And then there are about 435 mill people in Europe who have one of the 35 other European languages as their native language.
(Data source: Google AI)
There are other (minor) Romance languages, like Provencal, Catalan and then the various Italian languages like Venetian, but most speakers of these also speak one of the six big ones so the overall number shouldn’t change much.
Any of us can ask AI and throw slop into a conversation. If you don’t have anything substantive to add maybe read and learn.
Very substantive comment Dr. Bob!
That’s me lurking until I have something to contribute.
Cmon man that is such a needless nitpick, especially as I had the qualifier “almost” in there. Also; booo AI, booo!
ok, so “almost” all americans have an IQ below their president? 😅
Look, what the fuck are we trying to do here man? Snipe at eachother in exchange for internet points? You knew exactly what I meant, so why are you here?
Well, no. You are writing a less than precise style, and you are up the walls and … whatever
Then why bother us with it?