• eaterofclowns@lemmy.world
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    6 hours ago

    In a pretty famous case, Giles Corey refused to plea to the accusation of witchcraft against him. He was pressed to death. Each time he was asked to plea over the course of three days he replied, “more weight.”

  • FlashMobOfOne@lemmy.world
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    6 hours ago

    I can’t imagine standing at one of these executions and it not occurring to me that, if these women had command of magical powers… why wouldn’t they use them to escape?

    • webghost0101@sopuli.xyz
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      1 hour ago

      Not a historian but if recall correctly the swimming test followed the logic that water is sacred (baptism) and would reject a witch

      If you float your a witch, sink and you are innocent. Too bad some drowned this way.

      This was not an recognised science, but common folklore, the people demanded such test after there where already rumours.

      The majority of witch trials happend within a real court but they usually made sure (torture) that there was a confession.

      For a commoner, who may not have experienced the means to get confession first hand they had no reason to doubt their word.

      There where also some ready answers for your exact questioning, one is that witches have no power of their own but get it from Satan, who is “the father of lies” some confessions included a supposed promise by Satan to protect them, which didn’t happen and gets turned into a warning that Satan will deceive even those that are loyal.

  • GreyShuck@feddit.uk
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    8 hours ago

    The last confirmed execution for witchcraft in England was in 1682.

    The United Kingdom (UK) did not come into existence until 1707 - when the Act of Union united England and Scotland.

    The last execution for witchcraft in Scotland was in 1727, which was by burning. At that time Scotland was part of the United Kingdom, so witches WERE burnt in the UK, but only in Scotland, NOT in England.

    • Zombie@feddit.uk
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      2 hours ago

      Horne and her daughter were arrested in Dornoch in Sutherland and imprisoned on the accusations of her neighbours. Horne was showing signs of senility, and her daughter had a deformity of her hands and feet. The neighbours accused Horne of having used her daughter as a pony to ride to the Devil, where she had her shod by him. The trial was conducted very quickly; the sheriff, Captain David Ross, had judged both guilty and sentenced them to be burned at the stake. The daughter managed to escape, but Janet was stripped, smeared with tar, paraded through the town on a barrel and burned alive.[2] Nine years after her death the witchcraft acts were repealed in Scotland.

      https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Janet_Horne

      Apart from being burned alive that’s just a blackening! A wedding tradition still done to this day.

  • SocialMediaRefugee@lemmy.world
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    6 hours ago

    Central Europe went nuts over witches. The general thought is that the driving force behind the witch hunts was the Reformation and Counter Reformation that drove Christians and leadership to more extreme positions to position themselves as the “defenders of the true faith” and to attract adherents. They centered around battleground states where protestant and catholic states bordered. In areas where one faith had a monopoly they were rare. The Spanish Inquisition actually suppressed witch hunts. Witch hunts peaked with the wars of religion period around 1560 to 1630.

    Socio-economic turmoil and changes in the law fed the craze with groups that could not defend themselves made into convinient scapegoats.

    “In the Middle Ages, if you accused a neighbor of witchcraft and could not prove it, you faced the legal penalty they would have received. This kept accusations low.”

    “In the early modern era, local states took over prosecution. Authorities could arrest people based on mere rumors, try them in secret, and legally use judicial torture to extract confessions. Tortured victims routinely named friends and neighbors to make the pain stop, creating a self-perpetuating loop of mass arrests.”

    “The craze finally disintegrated after the 1648 Peace of Westphalia. The treaty established fixed territorial borders for religions, eliminating the open competition for souls and causing witchcraft prosecutions to plummet.”

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Northern_Moravia_witch_trials

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Malleus_Maleficarum

    • bedwyr@piefed.ca
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      10 hours ago

      Men were also accused of witchcraft, just not as often. By the 1600’s it’s estimated 100k people had been sacrificed to such allegations, burning being the go to method of dealing with them and heretics.

      • rockSlayer@lemmy.blahaj.zone
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        10 hours ago

        The witch hunts primarily arose due to women owning property and gaining class consciousness against the feudal system. Yes, men were killed in the witch hunts, but that doesn’t negate their primary purpose

          • zloubida@sh.itjust.works
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            7 hours ago

            Events like that, which spans on different continents and different centuries absolutely don’t have a common cause or purpose. It’s easy to read in them confirmations of one’s own preconceptions…

        • bedwyr@piefed.ca
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          9 hours ago

          A lot of the witch trials were for the church, and the aristocracy, to prevent anyone challenging their authority. Ie, practicing herbal medicine was a big one. Any Shamans of barbarian tribes they wanted to convert, all sorts of stuff like that.

  • melfie@lemmy.zip
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    9 hours ago

    There are ways of telling whether she is a witch. Tell me, what do you do with witches?

  • Zwuzelmaus@feddit.org
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    11 hours ago

    were hung in the U.S. and the U.K., but burned in Scotland.

    I guess some wanted to see them, while others rather wanted to smell them.

  • username_1@discuss.tchncs.de
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    11 hours ago

    Yes, those regions have some rather big levels of autonomy. Even used their own money. Scottish pound differs from British pound even today.

    • jobbies@lemmy.zip
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      7 hours ago

      regions

      Countries.

      big levels of autonomy

      We didn’t back then.

      Scottish pound differs from British pound even today

      No it doesn’t. Its the exact same.